On this page my goal is to explain and prove some important theorems in modular arithmetic in hopes for you to gain a better understanding of why the theorems are important and how they work.
Given a ≡ b (mod m) and c ≡ d (mod m), we know by the Congruence definition that a ≡ b (mod m) implies m ∣ (a-b) and c ≡ d (mod m) implies m ∣ (c-d). Then by definition of divides, which states for some integers x, y, and z, x ∣ y if xz=y, we know for some integers k and j ,
Which implies that,
Since k+j is an integer because the set of all integers is closed under addition we know by the congruence definition that m(k+j)= (a+c)-(b+d) implies (a+c) ≡ (b+d) (mod m). Therefore, If a ≡ b (mod m) and c ≡ d (mod m), then (a + c) ≡ (b + d) (mod m). Q.E.D.
A similar process can be done to prove Theorem 2. I’ll let you try to prove Theorem 2 using what you have learned so far.
Proof:
Given natural numbers c and n and c ⋅ 10n ≡ c (mod 9) we know that c ≡ c and 10n ≡ c (mod 9). This is because 10 ≡ 1 (mod 9), then suppose we combine the equation with itself to obtain 100 = 10 ⋅ 10 ≡ 1 ⋅ 1 ≡ 1 (mod 9). We can do this as many times as necessary, (e.g., n times), and therefore have 10n ≡ 1n ≡ 1 (mod 9) for any natural number n. Thus, by Theorem 2 we can combine c ≡ c and 10n ≡ c (mod 9) to obtain c · 10n ≡ c (mod 9). Therefore, for any natural numbers c and n, we have c · 10n ≡ c (mod 9).
This is a shortcut for knowing any congruence of c · 10n in mod 9.
Proof:
We will prove Fermat’s Little Theorem by induction. For this proof we will use the Binomial Theorem which states:
For integers a, b and n ,
Where k and n are integers.
Consider, a=1 for ap-1 we know p ∤ a because p is prime and the only integer that divides 1 is itself. So 1p-1 ≡ 1 mod p is true. Assume that ap-1 ≡ 1 mod p is true. By multiplying a to both sides of ap-1 ≡ 1 mod p we obtain the expression ap ≡ a mod p . Now we want to show that based on our assumption (a+1)p-1 ≡ 1 mod p is also true. By the Binomial Theorem we know,
Furthermore,
Note that 1 raised to the power of any integer is always 1 and that p divides into any binomial coefficient of the form, (p Cr k) because (p Cr k)=(p!)/(k!(p-k)1) indicating that (p Cr k)=p[(p-k!)/(k!(p-k)!)] => p ∣ p[(p-1!)/(k!(p-k)1)]. By translating all of our term in ap + (p Cr 1)(ap-1)(1)+ (p Cr 2)(ap-2)(12) +...+(p Cr p-1)(a)(1p-1)+1p to classes of mod p all of are middle terms go to [0] because any multiple of p is [0] in mod p . Thus, we are left with the following terms: (a+1)p = ap +1. Thus, (a+1)p ≡ ap +1 mod p
Therefore, if ap-1 ≡ 1 mod p is true then (a+1)p-1 ≡ 1 mod p is true and since we know ap-1 ≡ 1 mod p is true for a=1 we know that it is true for all integers. Q.E.D.
Importance: Fermat’s Little Theorem is important in number theory because it helps use compute powers of integers modulo prime numbers. It has a fundamental role in the application of public-key cryptography which we will dive into more deeply on the Application page.
Before I start this proof I would like to list some Lemmas I feel are vital for proving The Chinese Remainder Theorem:
Let m and a1, . . . , an be positive integers. If m is relatively prime to each of a1, . . . , an then it is relatively prime to their product a1 · · ·an .
Let m and a1, . . . , an be positive integers. If m is a multiple of each of a1, . . . , an, then m is a multiple of [ a1, . . . , an].
Let a1, . . . , an be positive integers. If a1, . . . , an are pairwise relatively prime (that is, (ai , aj ) = 1 for i ≠ j), then [ a1, . . . , an] = a1 · · ·an .
Proof:
Suppose pk is equal to the product of some combination of the mi’s. Then by Lemma C.1,
Hence, there exist
Now we let,
Further suppose that there exist pj such that j ≠ i then, we know that mk ∣ pj since all the mi’s are relatively prime. Now when we mod mk all the terms but the k-th term are [0] in mod mk:
This shows x is a solution to the system of congruences giving us a formula for x. So now we just need to show that for two solutions to the system of congruences x and y that x = y (mod m1 · · · mn). So now we have,
By using a bit of algebra we see,
Thus, (x − y) is a multiple of all the mi’s, so [m1, . . . , mn] ∣ (x − y). But the mi’s are all pairwise relatively prime by our given, so by Lemma C.3, m1 · · · mn ∣ (x − y), or x ≡ y (mod m1 · · · mn). This means that the solution to the congruences is unique. Therefore,
Let m1 ,m2 ,…,mk be pairwise relatively prime. Then the system of simultaneous linear congruences
always has a solution, which is of the form x ≡ c (mod m1m2 … mk ). Q.E.D.
Importance: This is a special case for Theorem 4 where the mi’s , i={1, 2, 3,..., k} , are reactively prime meaning no integer greater than one that divides them all. This Theorem allows us to easily indicate whether a system of congruences has a solution that can be found and how to find that solution. The Chinese Remainder Theorem has an important role in Cryptography which we will later discuss on the Application page.